pttd-surgical-reconstruction
A 52-year-old woman presents with 18 months of progressive medial ankle pain and acquired flatfoot deformity. Examination reveals inability to perform single-limb heel rise, hindfoot valgus of 15 degrees that is passively correctable, and forefoot abduction. Radiographs show talonavicular uncoverage of 30% with no subtalar arthritis. MRI confirms complete rupture of the posterior tibial tendon with minimal fatty degeneration of the muscle belly. **What is the MOST appropriate surgical treatment for this patient?**
Mark each as TRUE or FALSE
Gastrocnemius recession alone
FDL tendon transfer with medializing calcaneal osteotomy
FDL tendon transfer, medializing calcaneal osteotomy, and gastrocnemius recession
Triple arthrodesis
Isolated subtalar fusion
Answer the questions to see explanations
Click T (True) or F (False) for each option