Musculoskeletal Infections
A 58-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents with a 3-day history of right knee pain, swelling, and inability to weight-bear. He is febrile at 38.5°C. Examination reveals a tense effusion with exquisite tenderness and severely limited range of motion. WCC is 15 x 10⁹/L and CRP is 180 mg/L. Joint aspiration reveals turbid fluid with 85,000 WBC/mm³ (95% polymorphonuclear cells). Regarding the diagnosis and management of septic arthritis:
Mark each as TRUE or FALSE
Staphylococcus aureus is the most common causative organism in adult septic arthritis, accounting fo...
Joint aspiration is mandatory before initiating antibiotics; synovial fluid WCC greater than 50,000/...
Antibiotic therapy alone is sufficient for most cases of native joint septic arthritis; surgical was...
Emergency surgical washout is indicated for hip septic arthritis, failed response to needle aspirati...
Risk factors for poor outcomes include age greater than 60, immunosuppression, diabetes, pre-existin...
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Click T (True) or F (False) for each option