Spinal Trauma
A 28-year-old construction worker falls from a height, landing on his feet. He has severe back pain at the thoracolumbar junction. Neurological examination reveals intact motor and sensory function. CT scan shows an L1 burst fracture with 40% canal compromise, significant vertebral body comminution, and 15 degrees of kyphosis. MRI shows an intact posterior ligamentous complex. Regarding thoracolumbar burst fractures:
Mark each as TRUE or FALSE
A burst fracture involves the middle column (posterior vertebral body wall with retropulsion into th...
The posterior ligamentous complex (PLC) is the key determinant of stability, more important than can...
Canal compromise of 40% mandates surgical decompression regardless of neurological status; the Load-...
The Load-Sharing Classification (McCormack) predicts posterior instrumentation failure and determine...
Neurologically intact patients with intact PLC can be managed with a TLSO brace for 8-12 weeks; shor...
Answer the questions to see explanations
Click T (True) or F (False) for each option