Spinal Trauma
A 28-year-old man falls from a motorcycle and presents with severe midback pain. He has no neurological deficit. CT reveals an L1 burst fracture with 50% canal compromise, 25 degrees of kyphosis, and involvement of the posterior vertebral body. The posterior ligamentous complex appears intact on MRI. TLICS score is calculated as 4. Regarding thoracolumbar burst fractures:
Mark each as TRUE or FALSE
Burst fractures result from axial loading and involve failure of both the anterior and middle column...
The TLICS (Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity Score) assesses morphology (compression=...
Burst fractures involve only the anterior column; the cervicothoracic junction is most commonly affe...
Non-operative treatment (bracing, early mobilization) is appropriate for neurologically intact patie...
Surgical approaches include posterior pedicle screw fixation (most common, short segment or long seg...
Answer the questions to see explanations
Click T (True) or F (False) for each option