Spinal Trauma
A 35-year-old construction worker falls from a height and presents with severe back pain. Examination reveals midline tenderness at T12-L1, no neurological deficit, and an interspinous gap on palpation. CT scan shows an L1 burst fracture with 40% canal compromise. MRI demonstrates a disrupted posterior ligamentous complex with interspinous ligament signal abnormality. Regarding thoracolumbar burst fractures and the TLICS classification:
Mark each as TRUE or FALSE
Burst fractures result from axial compression causing failure of both anterior and posterior vertebr...
The TLICS (Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity Score) evaluates three categories: morph...
Burst fractures involve only the anterior column; the cervical spine is most commonly affected; PLC ...
TLICS score interpretation: less than or equal to 3 typically non-operative, 4 may be operative or n...
Non-operative treatment with bracing is appropriate for stable burst fractures (intact PLC, no neuro...
Answer the questions to see explanations
Click T (True) or F (False) for each option