Spine Trauma
A 40-year-old man falls from a height of 4 metres, landing on his feet. He presents with severe midback pain and is unable to stand. Neurological examination reveals weakness in ankle dorsiflexion (grade 3/5) bilaterally but intact perianal sensation and voluntary anal contraction. CT shows a burst fracture of L1 with 40% canal compromise and retropulsion of posterior body fragments. There is disruption of the posterior ligamentous complex on MRI with interspinous widening. Regarding thoracolumbar injury:
Mark each as TRUE or FALSE
The thoracolumbar junction (T11-L2) is the most common site of spinal fractures due to the transitio...
The TLICS (Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity Score) assesses three components: morpho...
The anterior column is most important for stability; the PLL provides the main support; burst fractu...
Burst fractures involve both anterior and middle columns (axial loading); they are characterised by ...
Flexion-distraction (chance) injuries involve posterior column tension failure and may extend throug...
Answer the questions to see explanations
Click T (True) or F (False) for each option