articular-cartilage-injuries
A 28-year-old footballer undergoes arthroscopy for mechanical symptoms. A 1.5cm² full-thickness chondral defect is identified on the medial femoral condyle with exposed subchondral bone. The surrounding cartilage rim is intact and stable. The meniscus and ligaments are normal. **What is the MOST appropriate primary treatment for this lesion?**
Mark each as TRUE or FALSE
Debridement and observation only
Microfracture with marrow stimulation
Osteochondral autograft transfer (OATS/mosaicplasty)
Autologous chondrocyte implantation (ACI)
Fresh osteochondral allograft
Answer the questions to see explanations
Click T (True) or F (False) for each option