Pelvic Trauma
A 35-year-old motorcyclist presents to the emergency department after a head-on collision. He is tachycardic (HR 125 bpm), hypotensive (BP 85/50 mmHg), and has gross external rotation of both lower limbs. AP pelvis radiograph shows symphysis diastasis of 4cm and widening of the anterior sacroiliac joint. Which of the following statements about anteroposterior compression (APC) pelvic injuries are TRUE?
Mark each as TRUE or FALSE
APC injuries have the highest hemorrhage risk of all pelvic fracture patterns due to pelvic volume e...
The 2.5cm symphysis widening threshold distinguishes APC-I (conservative management) from APC-II (su...
Pelvic binders should be applied at the iliac crest level for maximum effectiveness and lateral comp...
This patient likely has APC-II or APC-III injury requiring immediate pelvic binder application at gr...
The difference between APC-II and APC-III is posterior SI ligament integrity - APC-II has intact pos...
Answer the questions to see explanations
Click T (True) or F (False) for each option