Femoral Fractures
A 72-year-old woman presents after a fall from standing height. She has been taking alendronate (bisphosphonate) for 8 years for osteoporosis. For the past 3 months, she has had intermittent left thigh pain. AP and lateral X-rays show a transverse subtrochanteric fracture with minimal comminution and localized lateral cortex thickening (beaking). Which of the following statements about atypical femoral fractures are TRUE?
Mark each as TRUE or FALSE
ASBMR criteria require 4 of 5 major features (subtrochanteric/diaphyseal location, transverse/short ...
Prodromal thigh pain occurs in 70% of patients weeks to months before complete fracture, representin...
Lateral plate fixation is the preferred treatment as it directly addresses the lateral cortex stress...
Contralateral femur imaging is mandatory (28% bilateral involvement) and prophylactic IM nail fixati...
Post-fracture management includes bisphosphonate drug holiday, vitamin D optimization, and considera...
Answer the questions to see explanations
Click T (True) or F (False) for each option