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Trauma
intermediate
X-Type

Pelvic Fracture Management

Pelvic and Acetabular Trauma

A 35-year-old female pedestrian is struck by a car and brought to the trauma bay. She is hypotensive with blood pressure 85/50, heart rate 125. FAST examination is negative. Pelvis radiograph shows widening of the pubic symphysis to 4cm with associated left sacroiliac joint disruption. The pelvic binder has been applied by paramedics. Regarding pelvic fracture management:

Mark each as TRUE or FALSE

A

The Young-Burgess classification categorizes pelvic ring injuries by mechanism: APC (anteroposterior...

B

Hemodynamic instability from pelvic fractures is primarily due to venous and cancellous bone bleedin...

C

Arterial bleeding is the primary cause of hemorrhage in pelvic fractures (90%); pelvic binders shoul...

D

In the hemodynamically unstable patient with pelvic fracture and negative FAST, options include pelv...

E

Definitive surgical stabilization follows damage control principles after resuscitation; anterior ri...

Answer the questions to see explanations

Click T (True) or F (False) for each option