Primary Bone Malignancies
A 42-year-old man presents with a 4-month history of progressive thigh pain and swelling. Radiographs show a permeative lytic lesion of the distal femur with cortical destruction but no periosteal reaction or matrix mineralization. MRI demonstrates a soft tissue mass with extension through the cortex. Biopsy reveals a spindle cell neoplasm with herringbone pattern and collagen production without osteoid. Regarding fibrosarcoma of bone:
Mark each as TRUE or FALSE
Fibrosarcoma of bone is a rare primary malignancy composed of fibroblasts producing collagen but NOT...
Primary fibrosarcoma typically presents in the 4th to 6th decades (older than osteosarcoma) with a s...
Secondary fibrosarcoma arising in pre-existing conditions (Paget's disease, bone infarcts, irradiate...
Histologically, fibrosarcoma shows spindle cells arranged in a herringbone pattern (interlacing fasc...
Radiographically, fibrosarcoma presents as a purely lytic lesion with permeative or moth-eaten destr...
Answer the questions to see explanations
Click T (True) or F (False) for each option